(Paper - I)
Time Allowed : Three HoursMaximum Marks : 300
INSTRUCTIONSEach Question is printed both in Hindi and in English. Answers must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No mark will be given for answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate. Candidates should attempt ALL questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each question. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question. Candidate should attempt All questions strictly in accordance with instructions given under each question.
Q1. Answer any one of the following: (about 250 words) 30 Marks a) “The reforms of 1909 introduced a cardinal problem and ground of controversy at every revision of the Indian electoral system.” Comment. b) Discuss the problem that impeded the integration of the princely states into the Indian Union. How were these problems tackled?
Q2. Answer any two of the following: (about 150 words) 2 X15=30 Marks a) ‘The mainstay of Mahatma Gandhi’s movements was the rural India.’ Elucidate. b) Discuss the character of major tribal uprisings in British India in the nineteenth Century. c) Bring out the ideological basis of the Moderate-Extermist divide in the Indian National Congress.
Q3. Answer the following: (about 20 words ) 15X2=30 Marksi) Arthasastra ii) Saranath Pillar iii) The Jatiya Sarkar of Tamluk iv) Punnapra-Vayalar v) Sajjad Zahir vi) Al-Hilal vii) Har Dayal viii) Khudai Khidmatgarix) Mahayana Cult x) W.W. Hunter xi) Indu Lal Yajnik xii) Achhut Patwardhan xiii) Sir William Jones xiv) James Wilson xv) Ghulam-giri.
Q4. Answer any two of the following: (about 125 words) 2X10=20 a) Describe the major characteristics of the rivers of Peninsular India. b) Account for the very high concentration of salt extraction industries in the Saurashtra and South Tamilnadu Coast. c) State the four distinctive stages of Indian Demographic history.
Q5.write short notes on the following (about 20 words) 5X2=10 i) Define Terai Region. ii) Mention the areas of Shola forests in India. iii) Who are the Todas and where do they live? iv) Name any four priccipal languages of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. v) What is MRTS? Where it is in operation?
Q6. Answer any one of the following: (about 250 words) 30 a) Discuss the question of death sentence and Presidential clemency. b) Explain the discretionary powers of the Governor of a State.
Q7. Answer any two of the following: (about 150 words) 2 X15=30 a) Highlight the signifucance of Forty Fourth Amendment to the Constitution of India b) Identify the major Fundamental Duties c) Explain the relevance of Rajya Sabha as a second chamber in the federal set up of Indian Parliamentary System.
Q9. Answer the following: (about 20 words) 2 X5=10 a) What is a point of order? When can it be raised? b) What is a Privilege Motion? c) State the difference between Council of Ministers and the Cabinet. d) How is the Vice President of India elected? e) What is meant by ‘sine-die’ adjournment?
Q10. Answer any one of the following: (about 250 words) 30 a) Discuss the steps taken by Government to check child labour and promote child welfare. b) Suggest measures for the eradication of wide spread corruption in Public Life in India.
Q11. Answer any two of the following: (about 125 words) 2 X10=20 a) The issue of gender equality in India. b) b) Natural Heritage and Cultural Heritage.c) c) Identify the types of disabilities.
Q12. Answer any two of the following: (about 125 words) 2 X10=20 a) What are the distinctive features of the Lokpal Bill introduced in the Parliament this year? b) What is the Prime Minister’s Five-Point agenda fir India’s development as a Knowledge Society? c) What are the precinditions for the growth of Civil Society? Is Indian democracy conducive to it?
Q13. Write about the following ( about 20 words ) 5X2=10 a) Anthraxb) Radiation and its effects c) The Statue of Liberty d) George Walker Bush e) Genome.
General Studies - 2003 (Main) (Paper - II)
Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300
INSTRUCTIONSEach Question is printed both in Hindi and in English. Answers must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No mark will be given for answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate. Candidates should attempt ALL questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each question. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.
Q1. Answer any two of the following (about 150 words) 15X2=30 a) Discuss the major issues in Indo-US relations in recent times. b) Discuss the impact of the collapse of the Soviet Union on Indo-Russian relations. c) Discuss the recent trends in India’s relations with China.
Q2. Answer the following (about 20 words) 2X5=10 a) Discuss the importance of the Agra Summit on Indo-Pakistan relations. b) What has been the nature of “Track II diplomacy” between India and Pakistan. c) Discuss the major irritants to Indo-Bangladesh relations. d) Discuss the India’s policy towards international terrorism. e) In what sense in Indo-Nepal cooperation important for both countries’ national security.
Q3. Answer the following (about 20 words) 2X5=10 a) Under what conditions are NRIs permitted to remit deposits in India in any currency of their choice. b) How can NRIs be attracted to invest in India? c) What is the significance of the Pravasi Bhartiya Divas in modern India. d) In what ways did Idi Amin make life difficult for the people of Indian origin in his country? e) What is “Brain drain”?
Q4. Answer any one of the following (about 250 words) 30 a) Write a note on the strategy of planning in India since 1951. b) What were the major recommendations of the Task Force on direct taxes appointed under the Chairmanship of Shri Vijay L. Kelkar?
Q5. Answer any two of the following (about 150 words) 15X2=30 a) Outline the important objectives of the Tenth Five Year Plan. b) What is a Finance Commission? c) Point out the measures undertaken towards flexibility in capital account transactions during the recent past.
Q6. Answer the following (about 20 words) 2X15=30 a) What is Plan Holiday? b) Why did India have a surplus in current account balance in 2001-02 after a gap of 24 years? c) What is Value Added Tax? d) What is the main objective of the Competition Act, 2002? e) Name the two agencies that have helped to promote Foreign Direct Investment in India. f) What is the main thrust of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Bill? g) Highlight the main features of the policy relating to buy-back of shares. h) Why was Janashree Bima Yojana introduced. i) When was the idea of Agriculture Insurance Corporation mooted? j) What is the policy of the Government with respect to child labour? k) Explain the objectives of the National Health Policy, 2002. l) What was the main objective of the ‘Operation Blackboard’ scheme? m) Explain the essential feature of differential rate of interest scheme. n) Which are the three major items of expenditure of the Government of India on revenue account? o) What was the essential feature of the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana?
Q7. Answer any two of the following (about 150 words) 15X2=30 a) What is the ‘Veto’ in the UN-system? b) Discuss the role of the NATO after the end of the Cold War . c) Discuss the role of the United Nations in the protection and promotion of Human Rights.
Q8. Answer the following (about 20 words) 2X5=10 a) What do the following Stand for : i) IBRD ii) UNHCR b) Who is Hans Blix? c) Why was Davis Kelly in the news recently? d) What is the problem in Chechnya? e) What is the significance of the Robin Island?
Q9 Answer the following (about 20 words) 2X5=10 a) What is the significance of Enola Gay in world history? b) Why is Guantanamo Bay in the news now? c) What is the theory of “clash of civilisations”? d) What does the theory of “end of history” menn? e) Why was Robert Mugabe in the news recently?
Q10 . Answer any one of the following (about 250 words) 30 a) What do you understand by depletion of ozone layer and why is it considered harmful? Name ozone depleting substances and process. What international ramifications took place to protect the ozone layer and what was the target agreed upon?
b) What is interactive television? What special advantages and derived by using VOD services? What are the components of a typical VOD system? Which feature film was generated first entirely on computers and in which year?
Q11. Answer any two of the following (about 150 words) 15X2=30 a) What does the Solar system consist of ? discuss the motion of most of the bodies forming the solar system.
b) In which year and by which countries was International Space Station (IIS) launched? How many countries are participating in this program? What are the unique studies being made in the station which could not ve made so accurateky on the earth?
c) Discuss the elements of ‘frozen semen technology’. What are ‘embryo transfer’, ‘transgenic animals’, ‘DNA recombinant technique’?
Q12. Answer the following (about 20 words) 2X5=10 a) What is ‘Symathetic Haptics’? b) What are special feature of ‘Linux’? c) What is an operating system? List the basic services provided by an operating system. d) What is an ‘Internet Worm’? Explain DDOS. e) What do the following stand for : i) POSIX ii) EPROM iii) MODEM iv) COBOL
Q13. a) In the year 2001 there were 18000 workers in a certain factory, of which 13000 were members of a trade union. 12% of workers were women and 60% of them were members of the trade union. In the year 2002 the number of workers increased by 6% of which 480 were women. At the same time the trade union membership of women fell by 304 while the total membership increased by 10 %. In the non-members category, the ratio of men and women was 4:1 in this year. Tabulate this information and supply the missing figures. 8 Marks b) The following table gives the frequency distribution of height for 180 adult males:
Height (in cm) Frequency 144.5-149.5 3 149.5-154.5 5 154.5-159.5 24 159.5-164.5 54 164.5-169.5 60 169.5-174.5 27 174.5-179.5 4 179.5-184.5 3 Draw the two ogives (less than and greater than type cumulative frequency curves). Find the point of their intersection and comment on its significance. 8
Q14. a) The mean and variance of a set of 60 observations are 10 and 4 respectively while for a subset of 40 observations these measures are 11 and 2.25 respectively. Find the mean and variance of the other subset. 8 Marks
b) The three outcomes of an experiment;w1, w2 and w3 are such that w1 is twice as likely to occur as w3. Find the probability of occurrence of each of the three outcomes. 8 Marks
Q15. a) What are the problems that a statistician encounters in the process of construction of index number? 2
b) Suppose that the regression line of two random variables y and x given by y=26.38-1.35x and that of x and y is given by x=16.38-0.45y. find the square of the coefficient of correlation between x and y. 2
c) If the correlation coefficient between two random variables is zero, are the random variables independent? 2
d) In a certain factory, a unit of work is completed by A in 10 minutes, by B in 20 minutes. What is the average number of units of work completed per minute? 2
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